1. Which file system would you install if you want file system security?
A. NTFS
B. FAT
C. FAT32
D. CDFS
2. Which of the following PPP authentication protocols is the least secure?
A. CHAP
B. PAP
C. SPAP
D. MSCHAP
3. Windows 2000 RAS can be used to connect to which type of servers?
A. Windows NT servers only
B. Windows NT or 2000 servers only
C. Unix or Windows NT
D. Any server running compatible protocols
4. Which Windows 2000 control panel applet is used to install a modem driver?
A. Devices
B. Modems
C. Drivers
D. Phones&Modems
5. Which protocol is NOT supported by Windows 2000 RAS server?
A. TCP/IP
B. NetBEUI
C. SLIP
D. PPP
6. Which two Windows 2000 server utilities can be used to grant permission to dial in?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers
B. Server control panel
C. Remote Access Admin
D. Network Connection Wizard
7. Which of the following provides the greatest degree of security?
A. NTFS permissions
B. FAT permissions
C. Share permissions
D. Directory permissions
8. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of NTFS?
A. Higher security
B. Efficient for small disk capacities
C. Fault tolerance
D. Better for large disk capacities
9. Which of the following provides the least amount of fault tolerance?
A. Disk mirroring
B. Disk duplexing
C. Disk striping
D. Disk striping with parity
10. Which type of user profile can force a user to use certain desktop settings?
A. Local
B. Roaming
C. Mandatory
D. Computer
11. Which two of the following user accounts cannot be deleted?
A. Guest
B. User
C. Default
D. Administrator
12. Which type of user profile allows a user to log on to different workstations with the same desktop settings and allows the user to change settings?
A. Local
B. Roaming
C. Mandatory
D. Desktop
13. If a user has READ permission to a folder and belongs to a group, which has READ and WRITE permissions to it, what are the users effective permissions to the folder?
A. Read
B. Read and Write
C. Change
D. No Access
14. If you want users to be able to write files to a directory using a network share and read files in the same directory, which permissions should be assigned?
A. Write and Read
B. Change and Read
C. Modify
D. Create and Read
15. Which default share allows an administrator access to the D drive of a NT computer ?
A. D
B. D$
C. ADMIN$
D. Netlogon\D
16. A user requires access to resources located on 3 different computers in a peer to peer network. How many user accounts must be created?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
17. Which of the following can NOT be members of local groups?
A. Global groups
B. Other local groups
C. Local Users
D. Domain users
18. A user running a word processor application is able to read files from the document directory but is unable to save to the same directory. What is likely to be the problem?
A. Network cable problem
B. User has no permissions for the directory
C. User has incorrect permissions for the directory
D. User’s machine needs to be restarted
19. What is the recommended method for sorting out permissions for a domain user?
A. Set permissions to the individual user
B. Add user to global group, global group to local group, set the permissions on local group
C. Add user to local group, local group to a global group, set permissions on global group
D. Add the user to the global group and set permissions on the global group
20. A Windows 2000 server has three 800MB disk drives all currently empty. What is the total capacity if it is configured for disk striping with parity using all the available space?
A. 800MB
B. 1600MB
C. 2000MB
D. 2400MB
21.What type of fault tolerance does RAID 1 specify?
A. Disk striping
B. Disk striping with parity
C. Disk Mirroring
D. Volume set
22. Which of the following disk configurations is faster to read from than write to?
A. Disk duplexing
B. Disk mirroring
C. Disk striping
D. Disk striping with parity
23. Which two of the following disk configurations can use 3 drives?
A. Disk duplexing
B. Disk mirroring
C. Disk striping
D. Disk striping with parity
24. What is the %age redundancy for a RAID 5 system of 10x5GB HDDs?
A. 20
B. 5
C. 10
D. 25
25. Which of the following disk configurations provides the highest degree of fault tolerance?
A. Stripe set with parity
B. Mirror set
C. Volume set
D. Stripe set
26. Which of the following computer types are able to authenticate users for a Windows 2000 domain logon?
A. Domain Controller
B. Stand alone server
C. 2000 pro
D. Member Server
27. Which is a requirement for switching from a peer to peer to a server based environment:
A. Need to tighten security
B. Significant increase in the number of clients
C. Need for centralised administration
D. ALL of the above
28. Which of the following backup methods does NOT clear the archive bits of backed up files?
A. Full Backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Differential backup
D. All of the above
29. Which of the following backup methods is usually easiest to restore?
A. Full Backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Differential backup
D. Daily copy
30. You are combining four 200MB drives and wish to increase speed as much as possible. If fault tolerance is not required, what is the best disk configuration?
A. Volume set
B. Stripe set with parity
C. Stripe set
D. Mirror set
31. Which of the following is a correctly formed UNC for the share APPS located on the server CNE?
A. \\CNE\APPS\
B. \\APPS\CNE\
C. \CNE\APPS\
D. \CNE\SHARE\APPS\
32. Which of the following is NOT true of local and global groups?
A. Local groups can contain global groups
B. Global groups can contain local groups
C. Local groups can contain users
D. Global groups can contain users
33. When installing Windows 2000 pro, what must be configured in order for the client to log on to a Windows 2000 server?
A. Client for Microsoft Networks
B. Novell Client32 for NetWare
C. Microsoft Client for Novell Networks
D. File and Print Sharing for Microsoft Networks
34. What service is required for a Windows 2000 pro PC to log in to a NetWare 3.12 server?
A. Client service for NetWare
B. Microsoft Client for Microsoft Networks
C. File and Print Sharing for NetWare Networks
D. Service for NetWare Directory Services
35. Which of the following is/are global groups created by default on Windows2000 server?
A. Domain users
B. Backup operators
C. Administrators
D. Domain guests
36. What is the UPS configuration, which switches to battery backup when mains power fails, called?
A. On line
B. Off line
C. Switch mode
D. Dynamic
37. What is the device called in a UPS which converts DC battery power to the computer AC supply?
A. Inverter
B. Rectifier
C. Diode
D. Regulator
38. Servers combined to provide fault tolerance and load balancing are called:
A. Clusters
B. Workgroups
C. Domains
D. Mainframes
39. Which process is used to ensure that the active directory is up to date on all domain controllers?
A. Replication
B. Duplication
C. Distribution
D. Copying
40. What is a group of print devices that print from the same print job is called?
A. A print queue
B. A print pool
C. A printer group
D. A printer set
41. Microsoft terminology calls the software which actually controls the print hardware a:
A. Printer
B. Print device
C. Print server
D. Spooler
42. When connected via a 100Base TX switch, if 2 machines are sending packets between each other using FDX mode, what is the bandwidth available to the two machines communicating?
A. 20 megabits/seconds
B. 8 megabits/second
C. 200 megabits/second
D. 100 megabits/second
43. A high speed connection between two switches is also known as a :
A. Mainline
B. Link source.
C. Leadwire
D. Backbone
44. How many pairs of wires a CAT 5 cable does a 100BaseTX network use:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
45. How many pairs of wires of a CAT3 cable does a 100Base T4 network use:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
46. Which of the following is NOT true about switches?
A. They filter packets at OSI layer 2
B. They divide networks into segments.
C. They do not allow packets that are destined for the local network to cross to other ports.
D. They are able to choose the best route to use to a remote destination.
47. Which type of switch doesn’t check frames for errors before forwarding?
A. Cut-Through
B. Store and Forward
C. Workgroup
D. Edge
48. What follows the preamble and SFD in a Fast Ethernet Frame?
A. Destination address
B. Source address
C. CRC check
D. data length
49. The media specification for Gigabit Ethernet over Cat5 cable is:
A. 100BaseTX
B. 1000BaseT
C. 1000BaseF
D. 1000BaseLX
50. Broadcasts are NOT passed between subnets by which of the following internetwork devices?
A. Bridge
B. VLAN switch
C. Non VLAN switch
D. Repeater hub
51. What is the current standard for frame tagging which allows switches to communicate VLAN membership?
A. IEEE 802.3z
B. IEEE 802.11b
C. IEEE 802.3u
D. IEEE 802.1Q
52 Which statement is NOT true of a X25 WAN:
A. It employs Datagrams to route data
B. It employs Virtual Circuits to route data
C. It is an OSI standard
D. It is a packet switched network
53. The maximum collision diameter for a 100Base TX using 2 class II switches is:
A. 100 metres
B. 200 metres
C. 210 metres
D. 205 metres
54. Carrier extension is used in Gigabit Ethernet networks to ensure a minimum frame size of:
A. 128 bytes
B. 64 bytes
C. 256 bytes
D. 512 bytes
55. Which IEEE LAN standard uses a demand priority scheme instead of CSMA/CD?
A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.12
D. 802.3u
56. What is the IEEE LAN standard for Gigabit Ethernet?
A. 802.3
B. 802.3z
C.802.3u
D. 802.12
57. Which of the following provides the highest level of security against hacking attacks on an intranet from the internet ?
A. protocol isolation
B. software router with routing disabled
C. third party router
D. software router with routing enabled
58. The technique, which enables Ethernet LANs to use an ATM backbone, is called:
A. LANE
B. VLAN
C. VPN
D. multiplexing
59. An 8 port 10/100Mbps switch has a maximum capacity in HDX mode of :
A. 100Mbps
B. 80Mbps
C. 200Mbps
D. 800Mbps.
60. When MPPP is used to combine the channels of BRI ISDN the capacity available to a DUN user is:
A. 56Kbps
B. 64 Kbps
C. 128Kbps
D. 2048Kbps
61. Virtual Private Networks are configured using which protocol(s):
A. SLIP
B. PPP
C. PPTP
D. L2TP+ IPsec
62. In a Frame Relay network, circuits which are always available are called:
A. VPNs
B. PVCs
C. SVCs
D. Leased lines
63. Which of the following is supported by Windows 2000 but not by NT4?
A. Multi processors
B. Multi user
C. Multi tasking
D. Plug and play
64. What type of connections can a Windows 2000 server handle?
A. Remote node using SLIP
B. Remote control using SLIP
C. Remote node using PPP
D. Remote control using RDS
65. The E1 digital service operates at?
A. 64 Kbps
B. 2048 Kbps
C. 8.096 Mbps
D. 34.368Mbps
66. The E3 digital service operates at?
A. 64 Kbps
B. 2048 Kbps
C. 8.096 Mbps
D. 34.368Mbps
67. ATM uses what type of technology?
A. Cell switching
B. Virtual circuits
C. QoS guarantees
D. All of the above
68. Cell switching is a variation of packet switching where frames:
A. Are small and have fixed length
B. Are large and of variable length
C. Don’t contain frame check sequence
D. Contain source and destination address
69. Which of the following is a packet switched technology that employs datagrams for normal data transfers?
A. X.25
B. Frame Relay
C. ATM
D. SMDS
70. The difference between a PVC and a SVC is that:
A. a PVC uses the same path all the time, but a SVC can change path between data transfers
B. a SVC uses the same path all the time, but a PVC can change path between data transfers
C. PVCs use datagrams, but SVCs don’t
D. SVCs use datagrams, but PVCs don’t
71. In a PDH system how many multiplexers are needed to allow E1 channels to be carried by a E3 trunk ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
72. Which of the following is a physical specification for high speed networks?
A. SONET
B. SMDS
C. ATM
D. Frame relay
73. How many links are needed to fully interconnect a 6 node mesh network?
A. 6
B. 12
C. 15
D. 18
74. The ITU multiplexing standard for high speed data over fibre optic cable is called:
A. PDH
B. SDH
C. SONET
D. ATM
75. How many telephone channels can a E1 leased line carry?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 64
D. 30
76. What is the basic rate service speed (STM1) of SDH ?
A. 2.048 Mbps
B. 51.84 Mbps
C. 155.52 Mbps
C. 2448
77. The basic transmission rate of SDH is how many times faster than basic rate SONET?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 10
78. The ATM QoS guarantee which provides the highest level of priority is called:
A. CBR
B. VBR
C. ABR
D. UBR
79. What does the A stand for in ADSL?
A. Asynchronous
B. Asymmetrical
C. Amplitude modulated
D. Attenuated
80. The device which separates the voice and data channels in an ADSL modem is called a:
A. POTS splitter
B. Line splitter
C. Multiplexer
D. DSLAM
81. BT Open World ADSL service for multi user access has a contention ratio of:
A. 20:1
B. 30:1
C. 40:1
D. 50:1
82. The device at the local exchange which combines ADSL circuits for onward transmission to the ISP is called a:
A. Concentrator
B. DSLAM
C. Digitiser
D. Regenerator
83. VLANs are used for which of the following reasons:
A. Enhancing security
B. Enhancing performance
C. Easing management
D. All of the above
84. The basic connection unit in an ATM network is known as:
A. Virtual Channel Connection
B. Virtual Path Connection
C. Virtual circuit
D. Datagram
85. In ATM networks the data is formatted into fixed length cells of:
A. 48 bytes
B. 64 bytes
C. 53 bytes
D. 5 bytes
86. The payload of an ATM cells is:
A. 48 bytes
B. 64 bytes
C. 53 bytes
D. 5 bytes
87. The first D in DDNS stands for:
A. Dynamic
B. Distributed
C. Domain
D. Duplicate
88. DDNS is supported by which client OS:
A. NT4
B. Windows 98
C. Windows 2000 Pro
D.DOS
89.Which TCP/IP utility is used to clear the DNS cache of a client?
A. IPconfig/all
B. IPconfig/FlushDNS
C. FlushDNS
D. NSLOOKUP
90. The range of addresses available for lease on a DHCP server is called:
A. Lease range
B. Scope
C. Size
D. Cache
91. A DHCP client asks to renew an existing lease by sending which packet?
A. DHCP Discover
B. DHCP Renew
C. DHCP Offer
D. DHCP ACK
92. The Windows 2000 Service which allows dial up connections to be shared is called:
A. DUN
B. ICS
C. EFS
D. DFS
93. A Thin Client can access Windows 2000 applications using which service?
A. RAS
B. Terminal Services
C. ICS
D. DHCP
94. A DHCP client can only access a DHCP server on a neighbouring subnet if:
A. The Router can forward DHCP broadcasts
B. The router is not a DHCP relay
C. A PC on the clients subnet is a DHCP relay
D. A PC on the other subnet is a DHCP relay
95.CSMA/CA is the MAC protocol used on which of the following LANs:
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.11b
D. IEEE 802.11a
96. The radio band(s) allocated for IEEE 802.11 wireless communications is/are:
A. 5GHz
B. 2.4GHz
C. ISM
D. 28GHz
97. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum is NOT employed in which of the following :
A. IEEE 802.11
B. IEEE 802.11b
C. Bluetooth
D. Cellular radio
98.Load balancing of web servers of the same name by client directing requests to each server IP address in turn is called:
A. Distributed Filing System
B. Drive mapping
C. Round Robin DNS
D. Clustering
99. The contract agreed by network providers and customers for acceptable service is:
A. a tarriff
B. a SLA
C. the agreed bandwidth
D. committed data rate
100. What determines the maximum size of the LAN segment that can be connected to one port of a switch?
A. The address table size
B. The number of ports
C. The buffer size
D. The forwarding speed
Msg me for the answers